Gyromagnetic momenta of electrons
After quantum theory the electron has two gyromagnetic momenta:
g = 2 and g / 2 = 1.0011596 .
The first term means that the real magnetic momentum of an
electron-oscillation has to be of the double magnitude referred to Bohr's
magneton (page 393 of my theory). The second term tells us that Bohr's magneton
is really exceeded for this factor (page 538 of my theory, plus page 392, page
402). The "polarizing of vacuum" would be the reason for this. For the
deviations one sets this "polarizing" of "virtual charges"
and those virtual compensation with fault calculation and gets the measured
amounts over the approximated math model. A giant success? Certainly it is,
mathematically. Unfortunately the equations are divergent. They are no models
for the united or unified field theory (page 373-391 of my theory).
But quantum mechanics has mistaken again in terminology. The found polarizing
is not the real polarizing of any vacuum but this is the polarizing of the real
subparticles which are rotating in the electron up to the amplitude of 3.86x10-13
m radius. If the electron wouldn't be charged single negatively then all its
positive and negative subparticles would be distributed equally. There were no
polarizing, no shift of charges. But the subparticles aren't antiparticles.
Therefore they don't make vacuum. There is no vacuum problem. When a further
negative charged subparticle appears at the inside then it presses away the
negative charges and attracts the positive subparticles. The ideal equal
distribution will be disturbed so. This reality has been calculated correctly by
physics but not seen so. Just like this problem we have to see the fault
calculations between the electron levels of hydrogen which cause the Lamb shift.
Mathematics are correct, but the models aren't!